• Last Updated:
  • May 16th, 2008 7:19 am
Tags:
None
Deal Addict
User avatar
Apr 1, 2007
2814 posts
159 upvotes
brunes wrote:
Mar 26th, 2008 3:04 pm
That is not true whatsoever. As long as 1/2 the party knows the conversation is being recorded it is perfectly legal and court admissible.

There are SEPARATE legal regulations that make it not allowed for private corporations to record calls without the other parties notification - that is why companies have to advise you that "this call may be recorded". This does not apply both ways though. Customers ar epefectly free to record conversations with other customers.
If you are making an outbound call, and are recording the call WITHOUT informing the 2nd party, then it is ILLEGAL, no if's and's or but's.

If you were to try and submit that in court, it wouldn't fly.

I think INBOUND is different, however OUTBOUND calls can't be recorded, unless you advise the other party of that fact...
Deal Expert
User avatar
Dec 11, 2005
19048 posts
1505 upvotes
WontonTiger wrote:
May 15th, 2008 4:43 pm
If you are making an outbound call, and are recording the call WITHOUT informing the 2nd party, then it is ILLEGAL, no if's and's or but's.

If you were to try and submit that in court, it wouldn't fly.

I think INBOUND is different, however OUTBOUND calls can't be recorded, unless you advise the other party of that fact...
Again - false.

Federal law prohibits the willful interception of telephone communication , but this only applies to intercepting calls you are not a party to. It does not prohibit recording your own phone calls or calls made to you when you are still on the line.
To be nobody but yourself - in a world which is doing its best, night and day, to make you everybody else - means to fight the hardest battle which any human being can fight; and never stop fighting. -- E. E. Cummings

Top